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CheckPoint 156-215.81 certification is highly respected in the IT industry and is recognized by organizations around the world. Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 certification is an excellent way for IT professionals to demonstrate their expertise in Check Point technologies and to enhance their career prospects. Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 certification also provides professionals with the skills and knowledge necessary to effectively manage network security policies using Check Point technologies.
CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam is a challenging and comprehensive test that requires a deep understanding of network security concepts and technologies. To prepare for 156-215.81 exam, candidates must have experience working in the field of network security and must be familiar with the latest industry trends and best practices. They must also have a strong understanding of Check Point products and how to configure and manage them in a variety of network environments.
NEW QUESTION # 194
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:
- A. run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot
- B. run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot
- C. Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to "full" under the CoreXL menu
- D. Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 195
How do you manage Gaia?
- A. Through CLI and WebUI
- B. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard
- C. Through CLI only
- D. Through SmartDashboard only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Gaia can be managed through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard1, p. 17-18. CLI is a command-line interface that allows administrators to configure and monitor Gaia using commands and scripts. WebUI is a web-based interface that allows administrators to configure and monitor Gaia using a browser. SmartDashboard is a graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage security policies and objects for Gaia devices.
References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, [Check Point Gaia Administration Guide R81], [Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81]
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?
- A. Advanced Networking Blade
- B. Threat Emulation
- C. Anti-Virus
- D. Application Control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 197
You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway.
Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?
- A. cpd
- B. cpwd
- C. fwm
- D. fwd
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 198
What is Consolidation Policy?
- A. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.
- B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.
- C. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
- D. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 199
R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:
- A. Gaia only
- B. Windows only
- C. Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows
- D. SecurePlatform only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
R80 is supported by Gaia only, which is Check Point's unified security operating system for all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized gateways1, p. 14. Windows and SecurePlatform are not supported by R80. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, [Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)]
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
- A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
- B. Quicker than Full sync
- C. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members
- D. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The statement that is not true about Delta synchronization is that it uses UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port
8161. The correct port number for Delta synchronization is 12. The other statements are true about Delta synchronization. References: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test
& Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 201
How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?
- A. Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.
- B. Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.
- C. Provides additional information to the connected user.
- D. Provides log details view email to the Administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Accounting tracking option is used to monitor the amount of data that passes through a connection. When this option is enabled on a traffic rule, the involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection. This information can be used for billing or auditing purposes3.
References: Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
- A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS
- B. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point production information, and configuration settings of a GAiA Security Gateway.
- C. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway
- D. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 203
What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?
- A. Share user identities between gateways
- B. Use Office Mode
- C. Use identity agents
- D. Use captive portal
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users is to use identity agents, which are software components installed on endpoints that provide user and machine identity information to the Security Gateway45. Identity agents are more secure and reliable than other methods, as they do not require network changes or user interaction4. Office Mode, sharing user identities between gateways, and using captive portal are not methods to deploy Identity Awareness, but rather features or options that can be used with Identity Awareness46.
References: Identity Awareness Reference Architecture and Best Practices, Identity Awareness PDP Broker, Identity Awareness Datasheet
NEW QUESTION # 204
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?
- A. Remote Access and RADIUS
- B. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
- C. RADIUS
- D. AD Query
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 205
Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:
- A. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication
- B. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.
- C. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.
- D. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 206
What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?
- A. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.
- B. To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
- C. To reduce the number of rules in the database.
- D. To hide the gateway from the Internet.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 207
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
- A. save config -o <filename>
- B. write mem <filename>
- C. show config -f <filename>
- D. save configuration <filename>
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D because the command save configuration <filename> stores the Gaia configuration in a file for later reference1. The other commands are not valid in Gaia Clish1. References: Gaia R81.10 Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 208
When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?
- A. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over
- B. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta
- C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority
- D. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 209
Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?
- A. Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.
- B. Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.
- C. Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.
- D. Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 210
Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?
- A. License and Update
- B. Package Repository and Licenses
- C. Update and License & Contract
- D. License & Contract and Package Repository
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Managing and Installing license via SmartUpdate2, there are two repositories installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate: License & Contract and Package Repository. The License & Contract repository stores all licenses available and all of the assigned licenses. The Package Repository stores all packages downloaded from the Check Point Cloud or uploaded from a local device. References: Managing and Installing license via SmartUpdate
NEW QUESTION # 211
What is the default shell for the command line interface?
- A. Normal
- B. Admin
- C. Expert
- D. Clish
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Clish is the default shell for the command line interface. It is a user-friendly shell that provides a menu-based and a command-line mode. Admin, Normal, and Expert are not valid shell names1.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?
- A. add rba user <User Name>
- B. add user <User Name>
- C. add rba user <User Name> roles <List>
- D. add user <User Name> roles <List>
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The command add rba user <User Name> roles <List> is used to add users to or from existing roles. RBA stands for Role-Based Administration, which is a feature that allows administrators to assign different permissions and access levels to users based on their roles2.
References: 2: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 20.
NEW QUESTION # 213
Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:
- A. Bob will be prompt that Joe logged in.
- B. Since they both are log in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.
- C. If Joe tries to make changes, he won't, database will be locked.
- D. When Joe logs in, Bob will be log out automatically.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 214
Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.
- A. LDAP
- B. SMTP
- C. SecurID
- D. NT domain
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/Topics-SECMG/LDAP-and-User-Directory.htm
NEW QUESTION # 215
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