[Sep 17, 2022] Uplift Your 156-215.81 Exam Marks With The Help of 156-215.81 Dumps [Q166-Q184]

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[Sep 17, 2022] Uplift Your 156-215.81 Exam Marks With The Help of 156-215.81 Dumps

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NEW QUESTION 166
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

  • A. Phase two key negotiation
  • B. Address translation
  • C. Log Consolidation Engine
  • D. User data base corruption

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 167
What is UserCheck?

  • A. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network
  • B. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created
  • C. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access
  • D. Messaging tool user to verify a user's credentials

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 168
Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?

  • A. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients.
  • B. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.
  • C. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.
  • D. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 169
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

  • A. Delivers file with original content
  • B. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats
  • C. Proactively detects threats
  • D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 170
Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

  • A. Star, octagon, and combination
  • B. Combined and star
  • C. Pentagon, star, and combination
  • D. Meshed, star, and combination

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 171
Fill in the blanks: A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a ________ cluster.

  • A. Standby/standby; active/active
  • B. Active/active; standby/standby
  • C. Active/standby; active/active
  • D. Active/active; active/standby;

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a High Availability cluster, only one member is active (Active/Standby operation).
ClusterXL Load Sharing distributes traffic within a cluster so that the total throughput of multiple members is increased. In Load Sharing configurations, all functioning members in the cluster are active, and handle network traffic (Active/Active operation).

 

NEW QUESTION 172
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

  • A. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.
  • B. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.
  • C. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
  • D. When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Check Point host is a host with only one interface, on which Check Point software has been installed, and which is managed by the Security Management server. It is not a routing mechanism and is not capable of IP forwarding.

 

NEW QUESTION 173
Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

  • A. Each side generates a session key from its private key and peer's public key.
  • B. Peers agree on integrity method.
  • C. Peers agree on encryption method.
  • D. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 174
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

  • A. Network
  • B. Security Gateway
  • C. Security Management object
  • D. Host

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 175
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

  • A. SmartView Tracker
  • B. WebUI
  • C. SmartReporter
  • D. SmartView Monitor

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 176
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

  • A. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.
  • B. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
  • C. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
  • D. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 177
Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.

  • A. License Contract file
  • B. License Management file
  • C. Security Gateway Contract file
  • D. Service Contract file

Answer: D

Explanation:
Service Contract File
Following the activation of the license, a Service Contract File should be installed. This file contains important information about all subscriptions purchased for a specific device and is installed via SmartUpdate. A detailed of the Service Contract File can be found in sk33089.

 

NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

  • A. Captive Portal
  • B. SSL
  • C. PKI
  • D. RSA

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 179
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

  • A. Antivirus
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Application Control
  • D. Anti-spam and Email Security

Answer: A

Explanation:
The enhanced Check Point Antivirus Software Blade uses real-time virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud™, the first collaborative network to fight cybercrime, to detect and block malware at the gateway before users are affected.

 

NEW QUESTION 180
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

  • A. Suppression
  • B. Accounting/Suppression
  • C. Accounting
  • D. Accounting/Extended

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 181
Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

  • A. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
  • B. Check Point Gateway
  • C. Security Management Server
  • D. SmartConsole

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 182
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

  • A. Threat Agent Solution
  • B. Public Cloud Services
  • C. Smart Cloud Services
  • D. Load Sharing Mode Services

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 183
Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

  • A. remote access clients
  • B. a combination of computer groups and network
  • C. all of above
  • D. users and user groups

Answer: C

Explanation:
To create an access role:
The Access Role window opens.
Your selection is shown in the Networks node in the Role Preview pane.
A window opens. You can search for Active Directory entries or select them from the list.
You can search for AD entries or select them from the list.
The access role is added to the Users and Administrators tree.

 

NEW QUESTION 184
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